Lifestyle

Mumbai, April 21 (IANS) India has emerged as the global leader in the adoption of artificial intelligence for personal health, with a striking 85 per cent of consumers already using AI-powered tools -- far ahead of major developed markets, a new report revealed on Tuesday.

According to a study by Boston Consulting Group (BCG) titled “Consumers Are Ready for AI-Enabled Health Care. Health Systems Need to Be, Too,” Indian users are embracing generative AI at a pace unmatched globally.

The report, based on a survey of over 13,000 consumers across 15 countries, highlighted how India’s adoption rate significantly surpasses that of the United States (50 per cent), the United Kingdom (43 per cent), and Japan (34 per cent).

Globally, nearly 60 per cent of respondents said they already use AI for health-related purposes, but India stands out as a frontrunner, reflecting a growing comfort with digital tools in healthcare.

The findings point to a major shift in how patients view medical care, with most preferring a hybrid approach where human doctors are supported by AI rather than replaced by it.

This model is particularly popular for tasks such as interpreting test results and managing chronic conditions.

The report also noted that younger generations are driving this rapid adoption. Around 78 per cent of Gen Z respondents and 71 per cent of Millennials reported using AI for health-related tasks, the report said.

Currently, the use of AI in healthcare is largely concentrated in chatbots and wearable devices, but expectations are quickly evolving.

“While current use is concentrated in chatbots (33 per cent) and wearables (19 per cent), there is a clear expectation for agentic AI that can book appointments, manage referrals, and flag drug interactions,” the report noted.

Consumers are increasingly looking for more advanced “agentic AI” systems that can independently perform tasks such as booking appointments, managing referrals, and identifying potential drug interactions.

--IANS

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New Delhi, April 20 (IANS) Namita Thapar, judge on Shark Tank India and Executive Director of Emcure Pharmaceuticals, on Monday hit back at trolls after facing online backlash over her remarks on the health benefits of namaz posted on Instagram in March.

Thapar said she and her mother were subjected to abusive comments following her social media post, prompting her to respond strongly and call out what she termed selective outrage.

Questioning the criticism, she pointed out that her earlier comments on the benefits of Surya Namaskar did not attract similar reactions.

In a video message, Thapar, who described herself as a healthcare professional and a 'proud Hindu', emphasised that religion should stand for respect, especially towards women, and said people must speak up against disrespect.

She also told trolls to 'continue at your own discretion', adding that actions have consequences.

“I have been taught that ‘R for Religion’ means ‘R for Respect’. Is this what respect looks like, especially towards women? When women are disrespected, why the silence?” she said, adding that people must speak up for themselves.

She also told trolls to “continue”, but cautioned that actions have consequences, referring to the concept of karma.

In a post on X, she said she made the video early in the morning before work as she believes 'silence is not a virtue' and people should speak up when they witness actions that go against basic human rights.

She added that while she is used to trolling over the past few years, the purpose of her message was to urge people to raise their voice against wrongdoing 'out of humanity and patriotism'.

Shares of Emcure Pharmaceuticals declined as much as 3.12 per cent on Monday to hit an intra-day low of Rs 1,618. However, it recovered later and closed at Rs 1,628, down by Rs 44.10 or 2.64 per cent. The stock has a 52-week high of Rs 1,688 and a 52-week low of Rs 950 on the exchange.1,628.0

--IANS

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Thiruvananthapuram, April 20 (IANS) Kerala’s public health system has moved to restore confidence after two disturbing incidents in which surgical instruments were left inside the abdomens of women patients during separate procedures, only to be discovered and removed later.

The back-to-back lapses triggered public concern and prompted swift action from the Health Department.

In response, the department has issued a comprehensive set of guidelines aimed at eliminating surgical errors and tightening accountability across hospitals.

A key directive mandates that every patient be fitted with a wristband carrying complete surgical details.

In addition, the specific body part to be operated on must be clearly marked in advance to avoid any ambiguity in the operating theatre.

The guidelines also impose a strict ban on the use of mobile phones inside operation theatres, citing the need for undivided attention and adherence to sterile protocols.

Importantly, the new norms apply uniformly to all procedures, irrespective of their scale, covering both minor and major surgeries.

A detailed pre-operative verification process has been made mandatory.

Doctors and nurses are required to ensure that the patients’ inpatient numbers and case records are fully completed.

The ward doctor and nurse in charge must fill out and sign a pre-operative checklist, which is then to be reviewed and countersigned by the nursing officer overseeing the operation theatre.

Only after these steps are completed can the patient be moved in for surgery.

The guidelines place strong emphasis on instrument accountability.

Hospitals must conduct a thorough count of all surgical instruments and consumables before and after every procedure.

The names and quantities of instruments must be displayed on a whiteboard prior to surgery and verified post-operation again, with the checklist submitted to the concerned authority.

Officials say the new framework is designed to ensure clarity of responsibility, making it difficult for lapses to be overlooked or blame to be shifted.

In a glaring case of medical negligence, a surgical scissor was found inside the abdomen of a 51-year-old woman nearly five years after she underwent a hysterectomy at the Medical College Hospital in Alappuzha.

Usha Josephkutty, a native of Punnapra, had the procedure on May 10, 2021. Since then, she had been suffering from persistent abdominal pain and episodes of blood in her urine. The cause of her distress remained undetected for years until, in February, when an X-ray taken on the advice of a urologist revealed a Metzenbaum scissor lodged inside her body. The instrument was subsequently removed through a follow-up surgery in February, bringing to light a serious lapse in surgical protocol.

Kerala’s first widely reported case of a surgical instrument being left inside a patient’s body had emerged earlier through the ordeal of Harshina, a native of Kozhikode.

The incident dates back to November 30, 2017, when Harshina underwent her third Caesarean section at the Kozhikode Medical College Hospital. During the procedure, a pair of surgical forceps was allegedly left inside her abdomen. For years, she endured severe physical discomfort and complications before the instrument was finally detected and removed in September 2022.

Harshina continues to pursue legal recourse, seeking accountability and justice for the prolonged suffering caused by the lapse.

--IANS

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New Delhi, April 19 (IANS) Leading specialists on Sunday warned that excessive consumption of energy drinks is emerging as a leading cause of liver damage among India's youth, on the occasion of the 'World Liver Day'.

Doctors warned that the trend is accelerating, with young patients increasingly showing early signs of liver disease.

Energy drinks are aggressively marketed to young consumers as performance enhancers and fatigue relievers but these drinks often contain caffeine levels far exceeding recommended daily limits, along with substances such as taurine and herbal stimulants, which the liver must metabolize.

Over time, this biochemical overload can impair liver function, medical experts said.

Doctors also warned against the increasingly popular trend of mixing energy drinks with alcohol. The stimulant effect of caffeine can mask the sedative effects of alcohol, leading individuals to consume more alcohol than they realise.

“Three major contributors to liver dysfunction are energy drinks, alcohol, and high-sugar beverages...Alcohol continues to be a leading cause of liver disease, and sugary drinks contribute to fatty liver disease," said Dr. Abhideep Chaudhary, President of the Liver Transplantation Society of India (LTSI), New Delhi.

If liver damage progresses beyond a certain point, a liver transplant often becomes the only life-saving option, he added.

A case published in the journal BMJ Case Reports documented acute hepatitis in a previously healthy individual linked to excessive energy drink consumption, causing high levels of niacin (Vitamin B3), known to be hepatotoxic.

Research indicated that high sugar content, caffeine, and chemical additives in energy drinks can trigger fat accumulation in liver cells, oxidative stress, and inflammation.

These factors contribute to liver injury over time, experts said, adding that when consumed frequently, especially alongside alcohol or unhealthy diets, these beverages significantly increase the risk of developing non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD).

Studies suggested that nearly 25–30 per cent of the urban population may be suffering from non-alcoholic fatty liver disease, with a growing number of adolescents and young adults.

"We are witnessing a demographic shift in liver disease with more patients aged 20-30 reporting conditions that were once seen primarily in older individuals. Many young people are unaware of the risks and consider these beverages part of a normal lifestyle," said Dr. Neerav Goyal, President-Elect of Liver Transplantation Society of India (LTSI) and Head, Liver Transplant, Hepatobiliary and Pancreatic Surgery, Indraprastha Apollo Hospital.

--IANS

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New Delhi, April 18 (IANS) Major drug maker Lupin on Saturday said that the US health regulator has issued a 'Form 483' with three observations to its manufacturing facility in Somerset, New Jersey, following a recent inspection.

In a regulatory filing, the pharmaceutical company said that the inspection by the US Food and Drug Administration (USFDA) was conducted this week between April 13 and April 17.

"The inspection was completed with the issuance of a Form 483 carrying three observations," the drug maker said.

The company further added that it will address the observations and respond to the USFDA within the stipulated timeframe.

Lupin also said it remains committed to maintaining compliance with current Good Manufacturing Practices (cGMP) standards across all its facilities.

Earlier in March, the USFDA had concluded an inspection at the company’s Ankleshwar manufacturing facility in India -- conducted from March 2 to March 7-- which also resulted in a Form 483 with two observations.

The company had said at the time that it would address the observations and respond within the required timeline, while maintaining compliance with cGMP standards.

According to the USFDA, a Form 483 is issued to a company’s management at the end of an inspection when investigators observe conditions that may constitute violations of the Food, Drug and Cosmetic (FD&C) Act and related regulations.

Shares of Lupin on Friday ended at Rs 2,322.50, a decrease of 0.19 per cent, on the NSE. Moreover, the pharma stock has touched a 52-week high of Rs 2,377.60 and a 52-week low of Rs 1,836.80 on the exchange.

--IANS

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New Delhi, April 18 (IANS) The Supreme Court has disposed of a writ petition raising concerns about the absence of assessment mechanisms for diagnosing specific learning disabilities, such as dyslexia, in adults, while noting that research is underway to develop appropriate testing tools for adult assessment. ​

A Bench of Justices Manoj Misra and Manmohan was hearing a petition filed by N. Sai Balaji under Article 32 of the Constitution of India, seeking directions on the absence of effective mechanisms for identifying and certifying specific learning disabilities in adults. ​

At the outset, the apex court recorded that several reliefs sought in the petition had already become infructuous in light of fresh guidelines issued by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment on March 12, 2024. ​

The Justice Misra-led Bench took note of the petitioner’s surviving grievance that the existing framework for determining specific learning disability is “limited to children and is not designed to deal with adults”.

​Referring to its earlier order, the apex court recorded that the National Institute of Mental Health and Neurosciences (NIMHANS) had been directed to clarify the progress made in developing appropriate tools for assessing dyslexia in adults. ​

In its affidavit, NIMHANS acknowledged that the currently prescribed assessment tools are designed primarily for children. However, it informed the top court that research is underway to develop suitable testing mechanisms for adults, and that such tools are expected to be published within 3 years. ​

Taking this on record, the Justice Misra-led Bench said, “We deem it appropriate to close these proceedings by recording the stand of NIMHANS that they are working on assessment tools/tests for determining specific learning disability amongst adults and would be able to publish the requisite tests within 3 years from now.” ​

In its order, the Supreme Court also took note of the petitioner’s academic achievements, observing that he had successfully obtained a Ph.D degree, indicating that the alleged disability had not significantly impeded his progress. ​

“From the own stand of the petitioner, we find that he has been able to obtain a Ph.D degree. Thus, apparently, his professed disability has not hampered his progress in life,” the Justice Misra-led Bench remarked. ​

Dismissing the petition, the apex court granted the petitioner liberty to seek the revival of the proceedings if no progress is made within the stipulated timeframe. ​

“In case there is no development in that regard in the next 3 years, it shall be open for the petitioner to seek revival of these proceedings,” the order clarified. ​

--IANS

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New Delhi, April 17 (IANS) The government on Friday highlighted India’s progress in building a robust, technology-driven animal health ecosystem under the One Health framework.

The government emphasised the need to move from disease control to eradication, particularly for Foot and Mouth Disease (FMD) and Peste des Petits Ruminants (PPR).

During the 10th meeting of the Empowered Committee for Animal Health (ECAH), Naresh Pal Gangwar, Secretary, DAHD, underscored improvements in vaccination delivery and verification through digital platforms such as NDLM and Bharat Pashudhan, enhancing transparency and accountability.

At the meeting, Dr Naveena B. Maheswarappa, Animal Husbandry Commissioner, delivered a detailed presentation highlighting the Department’s key achievements and the way forward.

The committee reviewed progress across vaccination programmes, regulatory reforms, laboratory strengthening and surveillance systems.

The members were also briefed on the progress in disease control programmes, including administration of over 133 crore vaccinations against Foot and Mouth Disease (FMD) since 2020, leading to a significant reduction in disease prevalence and outbreaks.

Peste des Petits Ruminants (PPR) outbreaks have declined from 98 in 2019 to 29 in 2025 due to sustained nationwide vaccination efforts.

“Strengthening of laboratory infrastructure, including Central and Regional Disease Diagnostic Laboratories, to support disease surveillance and diagnostics under the Pandemic Fund project was also highlighted,” according to an official statement.

On regulatory reforms, the Committee welcomed measures to expedite approvals for veterinary drugs and vaccines through process reforms and integration with the NANDI-SUGAM portal, resulting in significant reduction in processing timelines.

It also noted that the Department is working towards development of a national framework for animal feed regulation to address existing legislative gaps. The Committee further emphasised the need to expand WOAH-compliant compartmentalisation in the poultry sector to strengthen biosecure production systems and enhance export potential.

The committee emphasised key priorities including preparedness for exotic FMD strains and African Swine Fever, mapping of veterinary infrastructure on the NDLM portal to identify critical gaps, and conduct of a national mock drill on animal disease preparedness.

—IANS

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New Delhi, April 16 (IANS) Union Minister of State (Independent Charge) for the Ministry of Ayush, Prataprao Jadhav, on Thursday said that the Ayush sector will play a decisive role in achieving the vision of Viksit Bharat 2047, as he inaugurated the two-day “Chintan Shivir 2026” in the national capital.

Emphasising the growing importance of traditional systems of medicine, Jadhav said the Chintan Shivir reflects the government’s strong resolve to strengthen policy direction and ensure effective implementation across the Ayush ecosystem.

“Building on the foundation of the first conclave, the current edition aims to review progress, identify gaps, and chart a practical and future-ready roadmap for the sector,” he noted.

Highlighting the increasing relevance of Ayush in tackling lifestyle-related disorders, the minister said its holistic approach aligns with the broader global vision of “One Earth, One Family, One Future” and India’s push for “Heal in India, Heal by India.”

He also underlined that higher budgetary allocations demonstrate the government’s commitment to enhancing education, research, infrastructure, and global outreach in the sector.

Jadhav stressed the need to focus on evidence-based research, inter-ministerial convergence, and a whole-of-government approach.

He also called for greater emphasis on innovation, digitalisation, entrepreneurship, and public awareness, urging stakeholders to ensure that policy discussions translate into tangible outcomes at the grassroots level.

Secretary, Ministry of Ayush, Vaidya Rajesh Kotecha, said the Chintan Shivir provides a crucial platform to review progress and shape the future roadmap of the sector.

“The ministry is working towards integrating traditional knowledge with modern science while strengthening research, global collaboration, and public outreach,” he added.

Joint Secretary Alarmelmangai D. highlighted that the event fosters collaborative policymaking and meaningful dialogue.

A key highlight of the inaugural session was the signing of a Memorandum of Understanding between the All India Institute of Ayurveda and the General Insurance Council.

The agreement is expected to expand insurance coverage and improve claim settlement mechanisms for Ayush treatments.

The MoU was exchanged between Prof. P.K. Prajapati and Kasturi Sengupta in the presence of the minister.

--IANS

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Thiruvananthapuram April 16 (IANS) Ultraviolet (UV) radiation levels have risen sharply across Kerala, prompting the Kerala State Disaster Management Authority (KSDMA) to issue an orange alert in six districts and caution the public against prolonged exposure to direct sunlight.

According to data released on Thursday, Pathanamthitta, Alappuzha, Kottayam, Idukki, Kollam, and Palakkad have recorded a UV index of 8, considered high enough to pose health risks.

Specific locations under the orange alert include Kottarakkara, Konni, Chengannur, Changanassery, Munnar, and Thrithala.

Authorities warned that direct exposure to sunlight in these regions could lead to sunburn, skin disorders and eye-related ailments.

Meanwhile, Ernakulam (Kalamassery), Thrissur (Ollur) and Malappuram (Ponnani) recorded a UV index of 7, prompting a yellow alert.

Kozhikode and Wayanad reported slightly lower levels at 6, but officials stressed that caution remains necessary across the state.

The KSDMA noted that the most intense UV radiation is typically recorded between 10 a.m. and 3 p.m., urging people to minimise outdoor exposure during these hours.

Prolonged exposure to ultraviolet rays can lead to a range of health issues, including sunburn, skin diseases, eye damage and other complications, particularly among vulnerable groups.

Those at higher risk include outdoor workers, fishermen, transport operators, tourists, bike riders and individuals with pre-existing conditions such as skin disorders, eye diseases, albinism, and weakened immunity.

Cancer patients have also been advised to exercise heightened caution.

Authorities recommend the use of protective measures such as hats, umbrellas and sunglasses when venturing outdoors.

Wearing full coverage cotton clothing and taking breaks in shaded areas during travel or work can help reduce exposure.

Experts also pointed out that UV levels tend to be higher in high-altitude and tropical regions.

Even on clear days, harmful radiation can remain intense, with reflective surfaces like water bodies and sand further increasing exposure levels.

--IANS

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New Delhi, April 15 (IANS) The Delhi High Court has allowed the wife of an Indian Army soldier in a persistent vegetative state to seek retrieval and cryopreservation of his sperm for IVF treatment, holding that his prior consent to undergo assisted reproductive treatment before the accident would be treated as sufficient compliance under the law.

A single-judge Bench of Justice Purushaindra Kumar Kaurav passed the order while hearing a plea filed by the wife of a Lance Naik, seeking directions to permit the extraction and preservation of her husband’s genetic material after he suffered severe traumatic brain injury in a fall during patrol duty in Jammu and Kashmir.

In its order, the Delhi High Court directed that the soldier’s prior consent to participate in IVF treatment with his wife be treated as valid compliance with Section 22 of the Assisted Reproductive Technology (Regulation) Act, 2021, despite his current inability to furnish written consent owing to his medical condition.

"It is found to be fair, reasonable, and just for the respondents to undertake the necessary procedure/steps which are required to take the IVF treatment to its logical conclusion," Justice Kaurav said.

The petitioner’s husband, who joined the Army in 2014, suffered the injury on July 7, 2025, while posted at Dhoodhganga in Jammu and Kashmir, after falling from a considerable height during patrol in an operational area.

He has since remained in a persistent vegetative state with no reasonable likelihood of neurological recovery in the near future.

The couple had married in 2017 and had opted for IVF treatment in June 2023 to conceive a child.

During the proceedings, the Army Hospital (R&R), Delhi Cantonment, constituted a medical board which opined that while surgical retrieval of sperm was technically feasible, the chances of obtaining viable sperm were "meagre".

Rejecting objections raised by the authorities over the absence of fresh written consent from the soldier, the Delhi High Court said strict adherence to procedural requirements cannot defeat substantive reproductive rights.

"The right to reproductive autonomy, it must be remembered, is a fundamental right. The ART Act must be so interpreted which furthers the said right, and not derogates from it," the order observed.

It added that if the prior consent given by the husband for IVF treatment was not recognised, "the very purpose for acceding to the IVF treatment shall be rendered otiose".

On the medical board’s observation that chances of retrieval of viable sperm were low, Justice Kaurav remarked: "Whether or not the petitioner herein, and her husband, are to beget a child, is not in human hands. It is destiny that determines whether or not the fortune of parenthood shall get bestowed upon persons."

The Delhi High Court further directed that the wife’s consent be treated as valid consent on behalf of her husband for purposes of the IVF procedure wherever required, and held that authorities will not deny her the treatment solely on the ground of absence of the husband’s written consent.

However, the order clarified that the relief would remain subject to other statutory compliances and the medical condition of the soldier’s husband. The registry was also directed to anonymise the identities of the petitioner and her husband in the judgment and interim orders.

--IANS

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